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1. For a WBC count, after drawing blood into the diluting pipet, it is necessary to expel first 3 to 4 drops of diluted specimen in order to:

a. Clean capillary bore.
b. Dirtying the pipet.
c. Dirtying the hemacytometer cover glass.
d. Waste cells.

2. When doing a WBC count, to what mark should the diluting fluid be drawn?

a. 3.
b. 7.
c.11.
d.13.

3. When performing a WBC count, which reagents may be used as diluants?

a. Acetic acid or Ammonium Oxalate.
b. Acetic acid or citric acid.
c. Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid.
d. Acetic acid or trisphosphoric acid.
4. For the WBC count, immediately after the contents of the pipet have been mixed for about three minutes, it is necessary to:
a. Use a mechanical mixer.
b. Expel three to four drops.
c. Observe for even distribution of cells.
d. Refill both chambers of the Hemacytometer.

5. After the WBCs have settled for about three minutes during a manual WBC count, which powered magnification and lighting arrangements are used to focus on the ruled area to observe for even distribution of WBC?

a. Low-power (10X); reduced light.
b. High-power (43X); bright light.
c. Oil immersion (97X); bright light.
d. High-power (43X); reduced light.

6. When counting WBCs, a variation of more than _____ cells between any of the four areas counted or a variation of more than _____ cells between sides of the Hemacytometer indicate uneven distribution and require that the procedure be repeated.

a. 6; 12.
b. 7; 9.
c. 10; 20.
d. 10; 18.
7. How long do you let the WBC diluent sit to allow RBCs to lyse?
a. 10 min.
b. 20 min.
c. 15 min.
d. 5 min.

8. Which WBCs are counted?

a. Those touching the inner left-hand bottom lines.
b. All WBCs outside the squares.
c. All WBCs within the square and those touching the upper and right hand center lines.
d. All WBCs within the square and those touching the upper and left- hand center lines.

9. How many 1-sq-mm comer areas and chambers are used to count WBCs?

a. 3; 4.
b. 4; 2.
c. 2; 6.

10. Which chemical is mixed with whole blood when obtaining a WBC count?

a. Sodium chloride.
b. Weak acid.
c. Weak base.
d. Calcium carbonate.

11, Blood is drawn to the __________ mark and diluted to the __________ mark for a WBC count.

a. 0.5, 10.
b. 0.1,20.
c. 0.5, 11.
d. 0.10, 20

12. The usual blood dilution for the manual WBC count is:

a. 1:10.
b. 1:20.
c. 1:100.
d. 1:200.

13. The volume is the:

a. Area X width.
b. Width X length.
c. Width X depth.
d. Area X depth.
14. Using the Hemacytometer counting chamber, the formula for calculating the WBC count is:

15. If blood is drawn in Unopette with a dilution of 1:20, what is the patient if the average of two chamber counts is 163?

a. 3,260 WBCs per cu mm.
b. 8,530 WBCs per cu mm.
c. 8,150 WBCs per cu mm.
d. 10,320 WBCs per cu mm.

16. If blood is drawn in Unopette with a dilution of 1:20, what is the patient if the average of two chamber counts is 214?

a. 4,280 WBCs per cu mm.
b. 8,350 WBCs per cu mm.
b. 9,984 WBCs per cu mm.
c. 10,700 WBCs per cu mm.
17. If blood is drawn in Unopette with a dilution of 1:20, what is the patient if the average of two chamber counts is 198?
a. 3,960 WBCs per cu mm.
b. 9,900 WBCs per cu mm.
c. 9,984 WBCs per cu mm.
d. 10,540 WBCs per cu mm.

18. What are common sources of error when performing a manual Hemacytometer WBC count?

a. Wet or dirty pipets.
b. Poor pipetting techniques.
c. Improper collection of blood specimen.
d. All of the above.

19. Overfilling the chamber of the Hemacytometer can cause:

a. Erroneous low counts.
b. Erroneous high counts.
c. Erroneous equal counts.
d. No errors to the counts.

20. If the WBC count is 10,210 and the differential indicates there are 19 nucleated RBCs per 100 WBCs, What is the corrected WBC count?

a. 8,650.
b.8,580.
c. 9,580.
d. 1,021,000.
21. If the WBC count is 9,640 and the differential indicates there are 14 nucleated RBCs per 100 WBCs, What is the corrected WBC count?
a. 7,390.
b. 8,256.
c.8,456.
d.946,000.

22. What is the normal range of the WBC count in adults?

a. 4,500-11,500 WBCs per cu mm.
b. 6,000-14,000 WBCs per cu mm.
c. 9,000-30,000 WBCs per cu mm.
d. 4.2-5.4 million WBCs per cu mm.

23. If 88 eosinophils are counted in a 36-sq mm area of a Hemacytometer using a 1:10 dilution, what is the eosinophil count?

a. 20 eosinophil per cu mm.
b. 150 eosinophil per cu mm.
c. 244 eosinophil per cu mm.
d. 300 eosinophil per cu mm.

24. An unchanged eosinophil count 4 hours after the injection of ACTH is indicative of:

a. Addison’s disease.
b. Hyperadrenalism.
c. Cushing’s disease.
d. Normal adrenocortical function.
25. Which stain is used to evaluate eosinophil nasal smears?
a. Pink.
b. Orange.
c. Supravital.
d. Wright's.

26. The reticulocyte is an immature:

a. Rubriblast.
b. Erythroyte.
c. Prorubricyte.
d. Metarubricyte

27. If 15 reticulocytes are counted in a total of 1,000 erythrocytes, what percentage of reticulocytes should be reported?

a. 0.015 percent.
b. 1.15 percent.
c. 2.5 percent.
d. 1.5 percent.

28. If 86 reticulocytes are counted in a total of 1,000 erythrocytes, what percentage of reticulocytes should be reported?

a. 8.6 percent.
b. 4.6 percent.
c. 66 percent.
d. 86 percent.
29. In tuberculosis meningitis, the predominant WBC type usually found in the spinal fluid is the:
a. Monocyte.
b. Eosinophil.
c. Lymphocyte.
d. All of the above.

30. If 198 cells are counted in an undiluted spinal fluid, what is the cell count?

a. 2.2 per cu mm.
b. 22 per cu mm.
c. 220 per cu mm.
d. 2,200 per cu mm.

31. If 47 cells are counted in a spinal fluid diluted 1:10, what is the cell count?

a. 4.7 per cu mm.
b. 52.2 per cu mm.
c. 470 per cu mm.
d. 522 per cu mm.

32. White blood cell counts on spinal fluid that are above _____ are usually considered indicative of some type of intracranial disease.

a. 10 per cu mm.
b. 15 per cu mm.
c. 20 per cu mm.
d. 25 per cu Im1.
33. In most viral infections, the predominant cell usually found in the spinal fluid is the:
a. Neutrophil.
b. Basophil.
c. Eosinophil.
d. Lymphocyte.

34. In subdural hemorrhages, the predominant cell type found in spinal fluid is usually the:

a. Lymphocyte.
b. Neutrophil.
c. Monocyte.
d. Segmented lymphocyte.

35. The neutrophil cell is predominant in which disease or infection?

a. Tuberculous meningitis.
b. Syphilis.
c. Bacterial infections.
d. Hodgkin’s disease.

36. Except for the diluting fluid used, the spermatozoa count is almost identical in procedure to the:

a. RBC count.
b. WBC count.
c. Reticulocyte count.
d. Total eosinophil count.
37. What is the patient required to abstain from prior to having a Semen analysis collected?
a. Water intake.
b. Using a pre-warmed container.
c. Intercourse.
d. Using the Miller disk.

38. What three factors should be observed and recorded during gross and of the semen specimen?

a. Color, viscosity, and temperature.
b. Color, amount of blood, and viscosity.
c. Mucus dissolved, temperature, and color.
d. Viscosity, color, and turbidity.

39. During a motility and of spermatozoa, which cells are considered to be motile?

a. The entire mixture.
b. The entire depth of the field.
c. All active ones moving forward.
d. Only those that are floating.

40. When should the motility procedure be repeated when examining spermatoza specimens?

a. Every 15 minutes.
b. In 3 hours and 6 hours.
c. Within 30 minutes of collection.
41. Fibrinolysin causes what type of change to the semen?
a. It solidifies.
b. It is modified with Wright's stain.
c. It causes it to liquefy.
d. Nothing.

42. Semen analysis can be performed for _____ cases involving rape or in support or denial of paternity on the grounds of _____.

a. Medico-legal; sterility.
b. Medico-vasa deferentia; sterility.
c. Abnormal; epididymides.

43. From which of the following male body parts is semen derived?

a. Testes, seminal vesicles, prostate, epididymides, vasa deferentia, reticulocytes, and urethral glands.
b. Testes, seminal vesicles, prostate, erythrocytes, vasa deferentia, bulbourethral glands, and urethral glands.
c. Testes, motility spermatozoa, seminal vesicles, prostate, epididymides, vasa deferentia, bulbourethral glands, and urethral glands.
d. Testes, seminal vesicles, prostate, epididymides, deferentia, bulbourethral glands, and urethral glands.

44. Which of the following is a correct normal value of spermatoza?

a. Volume: 0.5-5.0 ml.
b. pH: 7.4-7.6.
c. Motility: greater than 50 percent.
d. Spermatozoa Count: 25 to 50 million per ml.
45. Which of the following is a correct normal value of spermatoza?
a. Volume: 1.5-5.2 ml.
b. pH: 7.3-7.8.
c. Motility: 60 to 94 percent.
d. Spermatozoa Count: 60-170 million per ml.

Solutions to Exercises for Lesson 5

1. a
2. c
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. c
7. d
8. c
9. b
10.b
11.c
12.b
13.d
14.a
15.c
16. d
17.b
18.c
19.b
20.b
21.c
22.a
23.c
24.a
25.d
26.b
27.d
28.a
29.d
30.c
31.d
32.a
33.d
34.b
35.c
36.b
37.c
38.d
39.c
40.b
41.c
42.a
43.d
44.c
45.b

End of Lesson 5

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