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Exercises for Lesson 2

1. When using laboratory reagents, what routine hematological care should be taken in their preparation?

a. Follow detailed procedural directions.
b. Measure regents exactly.
c. Control the temperature where indicated.
d. All of the above.

2. Particular attention must be given to storage of laboratory reagents, particularly with reference to requirements for:

a. Refrigeration.
b. Ultra violet light.
c. Protection from intense cold.
d. All of the above.
3. A reagent container is correctly labeled if the label contains the:
a. Constituents, initials of the individual who prepared the reagent in alphabetical order, expiration date, quantity used, and date prepared.
b. Expiration date, initials of the individual who prepared the reagent, constituents quantity used, temperature control, and date prepared.
c. Initials of the individual who prepared the reagent, stains, constituents, expiration date, quantity used, and date prepared.
d. Constituents, expiration date, initials of the individual who prepared the reagent, quantity used, and date prepared.

4. A reagent's container label is properly labeled and protected if the label is:

a. Complete and securely attached.
b. Neatly and legibly written or preferably typewritten.
c. Covered with a protective coating of cellophane tape over the surface of the label.
d. All of the above.

5. Why must an unused portion of a reagent never be poured back into tile original container?

a. Possible explosions.
b. Inefficiency.
c. Contamination.
d. Improper labeling.
6. When storing reagents on shelving, protect them from:
a. Darkness.
b. Moisture.
c. Direct heat.
d. All of the above.

7. What should you do if you cannot clearly read the reagent's label and/or identify the contents of the container?

a. Use the contents.
b. Check with your colleague.
c. Discard it properly and use a reagent's container with a label that you can read and the contents you can identify.
d. Save it for next time.

8. When preparing laboratory reagents for storage, which items should be chemically cleaned prior to use?

a. Mixing containers.
b. Stirring rods.
c. Storage containers.
d. All of the above.

9. At what point is it is a good, safe, practice to avoid contact of reagents with metals since metals may become unusable for laboratory work?

a. Labeling and heating.
b. Refrigeration and labeling.
c. Preparation and mixing.
d. Preparation and heating.
10. Highly toxic reagents should be conspicuously labeled:
a. Reagent.
b. "POISON.”
c. Poison.
d. “REAGENT."

11. The most common type of hemacytometer consists of ______ counting chambers separated by grooves or canal?

a. Four.
b. Two.
c. Sixteen.
d. None of the above.

12. From the list, which is NOT a proper procedure for puncturing the diaphragm using the Unopette System?

a. Using the protective shield on the capillary pipette, puncture the diaphragm of the reservoir.
b. Grasping the reservoir in one hand, take pipette assembly in other hand and pull tip of pipette shield firmly through diaphragm in neck of reservoir, then remove.
c. Grasping the reservoir in one hand, take pipette assembly in other hand and push tip of pipette shield firmly through diaphragm in neck of reservoir, then remove.
d. Remove shield from pipette assembly with a twist.
13. What phenomenon is used to fill the Unopette capillary with blood?
a. Gravity.
b. Capillary action.
c. Brownian movement.
d. Osmosis.

14. When using the Unopette system, at what point will the pipette automatically stop filling and be complete?

a. When the blood reaches the top reservoir.
b. When negative pressure is applied.
c. When the blood reaches the end of the capillary bore.
d. When the overflow chamber is filled.

15. How many times should the reservoir be squeezed and with what pressure to raise the capillary bore and force the diluent up into, but not out of, the overflow chamber using the Unopette system?

a. 4 to 6; hard.
b. 3 to 5; even.
c. 2 to 3; gentle.
d. 1 to 6; steady.

16. Using the Unopette System, after the blood is thoroughly mixed with the diluent and left to stand for 10 minutes, the red cells will:

a. Overflow.
b. Settle out.
c. Hemolyze.
d. Shrink.
17. What are the outer dimensions of the Neubauer ruling? a. 0.20 by 0.20 mm.
b. 0.25 by 0.25 mm.
c. 1 by 1 mm.
d. 3 by 3 mm.

18. What configuration does the most common type of hemacytometer look like for counting blood cells?

a. Two counting chambers separated by grooves or canals.
b. Three counting chambers separated by grooves or canals.
c. Two counting chambers separated by rough indentations.
d. Four counting chambers that are not separated.

19. How many squares are used to count white cells, when the dimensions of the Neubauer ruling are further divided into 9 smaller squares, with dimensions of 1 mm by 1 mm?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 5.

20. Using the Neubauer ruling for the platelet count, which portion and how many mms are used?

a. 25 middle squares; 0.30 mm on a side.
b. Outer 8 squares; 0.15 mm on a side.
c. 10 outer squares; 0.05mm on a side.
d. 25 middle squares; 0.20 mm on a side.
21. When taking a blood cell count, the cover glass must be free of visible ______ and _____ optically on both sides.
a. Defects; plane.
b. Outer squares; plane.
c. Stains; rough.
d. Blood; clean.

22. The central square is divided into25 squares, 0.20 mm on a side, and used for the _____ count.

a. Neutrophil.
b. White blood cell.
c. Platelet.
d. All of the above.

23. The cover glass must be free of visible defects and must be optically plane on both sides within + 0.002 mm according to the:

a. United Glass Bureau.
b. United Blood Association.
c. United States (US) Bureau of Standards.
d. Neubauer Standard Bureau.

24. Regulating the amount of light admitted on a microscope is accomplished by:

a. Objectives.
b. Power sourse.
c. Abbe condensor.
d. Diaphragm condenser.
25. The compound microscopes are provided with what three common objectives:
a. 250x, 1.9 x, 35x.
b. 10x, 40x, 150x.
c. 20x, 100x, 40x.
d. 10x, 100x, 40x.
e. 43x, 90x, 5x.

26. Select the correct items normally found on a modern microscope used in a hematology laboratory.

a. A darkening system, a substage condenser system, an objective system, a projector (eyepiece or ocular system), an iris diaphragm, nicol prisms, a tubular barrel (monocular or binocular bodies), and a mechanical stage.
b. An illuminator system, a substage condenser system, an objective system, a projector (eyepiece or ocular system), an iris diaphragm, nicol prisms, a tubular barrel (monocular or binocular bodies), and a mechanical stage.
c. An illuminator system, a substage condenser system, an objective system, a projector (eyepiece or ocular system), a round barrel (monocular or binocular bodies), and a mechanical stage.
d. An illuminator system, a substage condenser system, an objective system, a projector (eyepiece or ocular system), an iris diaphragm, nicol prisms, a tubular barrel (monocular or binocular bodies), and a mechanical stage.

27. What combination of lenses does a compound microscope use?

a. Objective lens.
b. Ocular lens.
c. Aerial image magnifier.
d. a and b.
28. Select the best explanation of an "aerial image”.
a. An image formed in the air.
b. An image formed in the air. The object is viewed through the projector or eyepiece that acts like a magnifier except that it magnifies an aerial object instead of an actual object.
c. An image formed in the air. The object is viewed through the magnifying glass except that it magnifies an aerial object instead of an actual object.
d. An image formed on a surface. The object is viewed through the projector or eyepiece that acts like a magnifier except that it magnifies an aerial object instead of an actual object.

29. The ability of a microscope to render fine detail is dependent upon the numerical aperture and proper adjustment of which lens(es)?

a. Ocular and objective.
b. Ocular and condenser.
c. Objective and condenser.
d. Objective only.

30. When rotation of a microscope's fine adjustment causes an object in the center of the field to sway from side to side, the lighting is:

a. Central.
b. Oblique.
c. Too dim.
d. Too intense.
31. Name one item the resolving power of the microscope is dependent upon during magnification?
a. Focal lengths.
b. Binocular bodies.
c. Arial image.
d. N.A. of the objective.

32. Preliminary focusing of a microscope should be observed from the:

a. Ocular.
b. Objective.
c. Top of the microscope.
d. Side of the microscope.

33. Since correct illumination of an object under study is an extremely important detail, what can incorrect lighting cause?

a. Inaccurate results and conclusions.
b. Inaccurate steps and timings.
c. Faulty conclusions and recommendations.
d. Changing positions and recommendations.

34. What is the function of the substage condenser when illuminating slides under the microscopic?

a. Indicates dark spots.
b. Reduces glare.
c. Directs a light beam.
d. Correct inconsistencies by changing the position left or right.
35. Which statement about the substage condenser is true?
a. The substage condenser functions to direct a hair beam of the desired numerical aperture (N.A.) and field size onto the specimen.
b. The size of the opening in the condenser together with its position up or down controls the light entering the system.
c. When the condenser is open to the stage, concentration of light is greater.
d. As the condenser is moved upward, less light passes downward through the object under observation.

36. Improper illumination is indicated when:

a. Light points appear on the outer edges of the slide.
b. The center of an object is bright on one side and dark on the other.
c. The object appears to be in dull light.
d. Shadows appear in the field.

37. Which three parts of a microscope may be adjusted to control the illumination?

a. Light switch, iris diaphragm, and ocular.
b. Binocular, iris diaphragm, and objective.
c. objective, iris diaphragm, and condenser.
d. Ocular, objective, and condenser.

38. When using a microscope the "virtual image" projected on the retina of the eye is the_____  image.

a. Initial.
b. Intermediate.
c. Final.
d. Aperture.
39. Which of the following is used to clean microscope lenses?
a. Methanol.
b. Acetone.
c. Household bleach.
d. Saturated sodium hydroxide.

40. The rays from a microscope are actually created by an increase in magnification by the:

a. Monocular.
b. Lens system.
c. Fluorescence microscopy.
d. Phase microscopy.

41. Because of dust, the lens system should:

a. Be separated.
b. Never be separated.
c. Be covered with gauze.
d. Be cleaned with bleach.

42. After a capillary centrifuge tube is filled with blood, it is sealed with:

a. Clay.
b. Paper.
c. Glass.
d. Wax.
43. Most microhematocrit centrifuges have a speed of about:
a. 500 rpm.
b. 1,000 rpm.
c. 5, 000 rpm.
d. 10,000 rpm.

44. Which centrifuge has the higher type of top speed for instruments?

a. Table top model.
b. Floor-mounted model.
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.

45. Whenever centrifugation is required, which precaution must always be followed?

a. Careful attention must be given to balancing the units. This means that tubes must be placed exactly opposite each other, they must be of identical weight, and they must contain the same amount of fluid.
b. Centrifuges should be equipped with a microhematocrit so that speed may be checked and controlled.
c. Hematocrits require a regular force and can adapt for 6 to 19 tubes.
d. The heavier, floor-mounted models require rubber feet to absorb vibrations so as to accommodate a large number of tubes, which are housed in mounted receptacles on spokes from a distance hub.

Solutions to Exercises for Lesson 2

1.d
2.a
3.d
4.d
5.c
6.b
7.c
8.d
9.c
10.b
11.b
12.b
13.b
14 c
15. c
16.c
17.d
8.a
19.c
20.d
21.a
22. e
23.a
24.c
25.c
26.d
27.d
28.b
29.c
30.b
31.d
32.d
33.a
34.c
35.b
36.d
37.c
38.c
39.a
40.b
41 b
42.a
43.d
44.b
45.a

 

David L. Heiserman, Editor

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Revised: June 06, 2015